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If God calls a brother to preach the gospel, how would he approach commendation?

If God calls a brother to preach the gospel, how would he approach commendation?

Early in his Christian life, Saul knew he was called by God to preach the gospel. It appears that he knew what the Lord communicated to Ananias (Acts 9:15;" TARGET="_blank">Acts 9:15; Gal 1:16)." TARGET="_blank">Gal 1:16). He returned to Jerusalem after three years (Gal 1:18)" TARGET="_blank">Gal 1:18) and, while praying, received confirmation that God was sending him to preach to the Gentiles (Acts 22:17-21)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 22:17-21). He continued to be active in this work, exemplifying, "Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might" (Eccl 9:10)." TARGET="_blank">Eccl 9:10). He was able both to work with his own initiative (in Tarsus, Acts 11:25)" TARGET="_blank">Acts 11:25) and also to work under the guidance of others (v 26).

His responsibility was to do the work the Lord had laid on his heart. He awaited God’s timing on his commendation. The initiative in his commendation, under the Spirit’s guidance, came from the leaders of the Antioch assembly (Acts 13:1-3)." TARGET="_blank">Acts 13:1-3).

Gideon knew these principles (Judges 6:36-40)." TARGET="_blank">Judges 6:36-40). His two requests regarding his fleece provided personal assurance that God had called him and a confirmation of that in the unity of others in following him.

A man does the work the Lord gives him, looks to his God for personal assurance of his call, and waits on the Lord to make that evident through the insights of responsible believers. If a brother (or his family) has to promote his own cause in order to be commended by the assembly, he is either moving ahead of God or against God.

D. Oliver

What are some of the problem areas in a Christian's thought life?

What are some of the problem areas in a Christian's thought life?

The Bible addresses lust, both the general desires of the flesh against the will of God and the specific desires the Lord Jesus links with fornication (Matthew 5:28;" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 5:28; 1 Thessalonians 4:5)." TARGET="_blank">1 Thessalonians 4:5). This second, impure lust may involve what is not natural (Romans 1:27)" TARGET="_blank">Romans 1:27) or what is youthful (2 Timothy 2:22)," TARGET="_blank">2 Timothy 2:22), but is always immoral. Various circumstances of life may contribute to these thoughts, but do not justify them before God.

Worry is a problem to Christians. When the Lord said, "Take no thought, saying, What shall we eat?" (Matthew 6:31)," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 6:31), He was not condemning taking forethought, but having anxious thoughts, worry. Such thoughts follow Satan's suggestions that God's care is not sufficient (compare Matthew 4:3" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 4:3 with 6:32). When the mind becomes preoccupied -with such material concerns, the door opens to inordinate desires for material gain - covetousness.

Unforgiving thoughts (Matthew 18:35)," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 18:35), spite, revenge, and nurtured anger (Ephesians 4:26)" TARGET="_blank">Ephesians 4:26) are harmful intruders in a Christian's mind. Assuming malice in another person's actions is evil thinking (1 Timothy 6:4)." TARGET="_blank">1 Timothy 6:4).

A proud heart, which exalts self and belittles others (Philippians 2:3)," TARGET="_blank">Philippians 2:3), is sin (Proverbs 21:4)." TARGET="_blank">Proverbs 21:4).

These are the weeds that grow native in our mind, but never found a place in the thoughts of our glorious Lord.

D. Oliver

Help me understand who the "holy brethren" are in Hebrews 3

Does "holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling" and "whose house are we" (Hebrews 3:1, 6)" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:1, 6) refer to believers or unbelievers?

We cannot accept that these words are addressed to unbelievers for two very obvious reasons.

The nation of Israel never had a heavenly calling. The covenant with Abraham involved blessing for a heavenly and an earthly seed (Genesis 22:17;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 22:17; Galatians 3:29)," TARGET="_blank">Galatians 3:29), but the promise through Jacob to Israel was for an earthly seed (Genesis 32:12)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 32:12). Abraham had heavenly hopes (Hebrews 11:10)," TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 11:10), but his natural seed had earthly hopes.

Israel is never called "the house of God." His (God's) house in Hebrews 3:2" TARGET="_blank">Hebrews 3:2 refers to the tabernacle in which Moses was faithful. To make unbelievers a part of "His (Christ's) own house" is not possible. Therefore the two expressions in the question cannot refer to unbelievers. We believe they were believers saved out of Judaism.

We know the name of this epistle is not divinely inspired, but internal evidence is most convincing that it was written to a people who were very familiar with the law and the Levitical system. The majority of them were true to Christ; some were not and turned back. In 1 Corinthians 10:22," TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 10:22, going back to either the idol's temple or the Jewish altar was to provoke the Lord to jealousy. Distinction between the genuine and the false is clear in chapters 3, 6, 10 and 12. The most difficult passage, 5:11 to 6:10, becomes much easier to understand if we see the contrast between "they - them" referring to apostates, and .us - you", referring to genuine believers. "Beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation." (6:9).

N. Crawford

How do we understand the meaning of "only begotten" Son?

How do we understand the meaning of "only begotten" Son?

The word translated "only begotten" appears nine times in our New Testament. Luke uses it three times in his gospel to describe either an only daughter (8:42) or only son (7:12; 9:38). The term also describes Isaac (Heb 11:17)," TARGET="_blank">Heb 11:17), which is instructive, because Isaac was not the only son born to Abraham. He was the father of Ishmael and six other sons (Gen 25:2)." TARGET="_blank">Gen 25:2). Isaac, however, was uniquely precious (22:2), because God promised to fulfil His covenant with Abraham through Isaac.

The remaining references to "only begotten" are from John’s pen and all refer to the Lord Jesus. The first mention in John is significant. Although the other four references (1:18; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9)" TARGET="_blank">1Jo 4:9) have an article ("the") with "only begotten," the first reference does not. "We beheld His glory, glory as of an only begotten of a Father" (John 1:14," TARGET="_blank">John 1:14, YLT). The absence of an article does not mean He was like an only begotten son. He was and is "the only begotten Son." As Mr. Newberry points out, the missing article indicates character. John saw in Christ every evidence that He was the Son uniquely precious to His Father and every reason why He should be thus treasured by His Father.

Although John never refers to believers as "sons of God," he does tell us that we are begotten (a related word) by God (1Jo 5:1, 18)." TARGET="_blank">1Jo 5:1, 18). Since many are begotten by God, the term "only begotten" cannot refer to the act of "begetting." It cannot therefore imply a beginning of the Son’s existence, or His becoming the Son of God, or His birth into humanity. "Only begotten" expresses the uniqueness of the Son in the essential value He has to the Father and in the central place He has in all that the Father has purposed.

For those who find the expression "only begotten" rather archaic, the words "only Son" convey much the same truth, although "unique Son" may express the truth more completely.

D. Oliver

Does a christian ever become "dead" to sin?

What does Romans 6:11," TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:11, "dead indeed unto sin," mean.

To understand the meaning of this challenging phrase, carefully consider the immediate context. These verses indicate that what we are in Christ positionally, we must now live practically. "For in that He died, He died unto sin once: but in that He liveth, He liveth unto God" (Romans 6:10)." TARGET="_blank">Romans 6:10). Thus, we are judged as having died to sin, but as having now been made alive unto God in Christ Jesus.

This is sobering truth for the believer to contemplate, as the wider context of Romans 6" TARGET="_blank">Romans 6 reveals. The believer who understands that God has made abundant provision in Christ for his daily living is enabled to live his life to the glory of Christ, and to the blessing and enrichment of his own soul. In this section of Scripture, the believer is viewed as being permanently set apart (sanctified) in Christ Jesus. This is displayed in his baptism, when he is identified with Christ in death and resurrection, having already been justified through grace. Since the believer is in this condition positionally, he must ever reckon (consider, calculate) practically that he is dead to sin, but alive to God. Obviously, there is no response to sin in a dead person! Therefore, a believer should have nothing to do with any form of sin in this sordid world; rather, he must live a life of holiness to God.

S. Wells

Did saints who rose from the dead after Jesus died go to heaven?

Did they go to heaven in glorified bodies?

Being raised from the dead is different from being resurrected. Paul refers to the coming resurrection as an "out resurrection" (Phi 3:11)" TARGET="_blank">Phi 3:11) from among the dead. Those who share in this "out resurrection" will come out from the number of the dead, leaving many of the dead behind to come to life in a later resurrection. More than that, they will leave death behind, never to die again.

These mentioned in Matthew 27" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 27 were raised from the dead and, like Lazarus, came back with their own bodies, which were still subject to death. "Putting on immortality" awaits the first resurrection (1Co 15:52)," TARGET="_blank">1Co 15:52), the "out resurrection." If those saints who came out of their graves went to heaven bodily, this relatively small band would be the only believers who have had their bodies in the Lord’s presence through the many centuries since the Lord ascended.

D. Oliver

Does Revelation describe the Roman Catholic Church?

Does Revelation 17:5" TARGET="_blank">Revelation 17:5 describe the Roman Catholic Church?

The history of Babylon with its religious implications goes back to Nimrod (Genesis 10:8-10;" TARGET="_blank">Genesis 10:8-10; Genesis 11:1-9)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 11:1-9). Old Testament references to Tammuz (Ezekiel 8:14)," TARGET="_blank">Ezekiel 8:14), the queen of heaven (Jeremiah 7:18;" TARGET="_blank">Jeremiah 7:18; Jeremiah 44:17-19, 25)" TARGET="_blank">Jeremiah 44:17-19, 25) and Baal point to the abominations of Babylon’s confusion. Zechariah 5:5-11" TARGET="_blank">Zechariah 5:5-11 sees a woman who embodies all wickedness and whose house is built in Shinar (Babylon, see Gen 10:10)." TARGET="_blank">Gen 10:10). The influence of "the mother of harlots and abominations" preceded Christendom. Her influence is obvious in the greatest institution in Christendom with its use of the title "Pontifex Maximus," with the worship of the mother and child, and with the proliferation of idols for "worship." When, however, Babylon is seen in her most complete manifestation, why ignore her pre-Christian roots and limit her to an "institution of Christendom"? She has corrupted all forms of false worship and will likely embrace them all in her "greatest hour." Although she will unite all worship that rivals the true God, she will be eclipsed by the "abomination that makes desolate" (see Daniel 9:27;" TARGET="_blank">Daniel 9:27; Matthew 24:15)," TARGET="_blank">Matthew 24:15), a man claiming worship as God (2 Thessalonians 2:4)." TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 2:4).

D. Oliver

How much education should a woman pursue?

To what extent should a woman pursue an education?

God can use each of His children, no matter how limited. Nevertheless, God evidently used the education of a Moses or a Saul of Tarsus for His glory. Higher education prepares believers for honest occupations (Titus 3:14," TARGET="_blank">Titus 3:14, Weymouth) and, in Gods hand, can be effective in developing a believers usefulness. All believers, male or female, need to exercise care that career aspirations do not eclipse their appreciation of the will of God.

A sister may never marry, may marry and be widowed, or may need to work because of an injury to her husband or some other difficulty. She should be adequately prepared for this, consistent with her abilities.

If married, the development of her capabilities through education enables her to more fully understand the field in which her husband works. She is better suited as his helper (Genesis 2:18)." TARGET="_blank">Genesis 2:18).

A good education may likewise enable wife to contribute more to the mental development of the children the Lord has given to her.

A believer, whether male or female, should pursue an education to the degree it is consistent with these three conditions: it is within his means; it is appropriate to his capabilities; it will enhance his usefulness to the Lord.

D. Oliver

What is the difference between being restored to the Lord and to other believers?

What is the difference between being restored to the Lord and to other believers?

Restoration brings a thing back to its original state. Old houses and old cars are frequently "restored." Our question deals with relationships between a Christian and his Lord or between two Christians. Restoration is necessary when relationships have been damaged. An offense will shatter a relationship. Drifting apart will damage relationships.

David prayed for restoration after his sin with Bathsheba. "Restore unto me the joy of Thy salvation" (Psalm 51:12)." TARGET="_blank">Psalm 51:12). Noteworthy in this psalm is David's confession of sin when he sought restoration. In Psalm 23," TARGET="_blank">Psalm 23, he wrote of continuing occasions when the Good Shepherd "restoreth my soul" (verse 3). He realized his tendency to stray from the Shepherd.

Christians, too, may drift apart or offend one another. Our Lord gave instruction in Matthew 18:15" TARGET="_blank">Matthew 18:15 for restoring a broken relationship. The two must meet together, seeking to clear up the matter between them. It is likely that, in most cases, mutual repentance, confession and forgiveness will be required. If an offense has caused damage, restitution will also be necessary.

There is no difference in the need for restoration, whether to the Lord or another saint. In both instances, the need must be acknowledged. One cannot be restored to the Lord who has not first been restored to his brother or sister (Matt. 5:23, 24)." TARGET="_blank">Matt. 5:23, 24).

J. Slabaugh

Does the Bible ever limit social contact between believers?

Does the New Testament ever advocate limiting social contact with another believer?

Romans 14:1-15" TARGET="_blank">Romans 14:1-15:6 teaches the necessity of preserving unity among believers by receiving one another to eat meals together. If verses 5, 14, 15 in chapter 16 refer to three separate churches in Rome, then social contact among believers also preserves a right relationship among assemblies in an area.

2 Thessalonians 3:6-165" TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 3:6-165 in notably different. The apostle advocates limiting social contact with certain believers. The believers who were not working, using the Lords coming as their reason, were becoming busy-bodies, adversely affecting the heavier of others. If they would not obey Pauls teaching in this letter (verse 14), the believers were to withdraw from them (Verse 6) and have no company with them (Verse 14). This discipline within the assembly could be called "social discipline."

In addition, the words, "have no company," are the same as in 1 Corinthians 5:9" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5:9 and 11. There in verse 11, "have no company: includes "with such an one, no not to eat." Both 2 Thessalonians 3" TARGET="_blank">2 Thessalonians 3 and 1 Corinthians 5" TARGET="_blank">1 Corinthians 5 are assembly actions. Social division in the assembly is contrary to the teaching of the New Testament, but social discipline is not a decision by individuals, but by the assembly.

D. Oliver